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Why the OECD did not report jointly with the FATF?

The OECD published a letter that Angel Gurria sent to Hans-Rudolf Merz on 2 April 2009.
Page 2 of this letter Angel Gurria writes that he informed that "there were no new criteria" and the OECD was "not reporting jointly with the FATF".

I cannot understand the reason why Angel Gurria had to confirm that the the OECD was "not reporting jointly with the FATF".

Why was it important to disconnect tax evasion and money laundering, that are however clearly linked?

Does the OECD fear jurisdictions that contribute with peanuts to the OECD budget?

16:50 Posted in General | Permalink | Comments (0)

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